1st Semester Practice Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which city is not located on Georgia’s Fall Line?
a.Columbus
b.Macon
c.Augusta
d.Athens
____ 2. Which geographic feature is not located in Georgia’s physiographic system?
a.
Rocky Mountains
b.
Blue Ridge Mountains
c.
Appalachian Mountains
d.
Piedmont Plateau
____ 3. Which is not a typical consequence of droughts in Georgia?
a.
Fire warnings
b.
Water conservation measures
c.
Shrubs flourish or thrive
d.
Lawns turn brown
____ 4. Which is not an advantage of Georgia’s mild climate?
a.
Long growing season for agriculture
b.
Four separate, distinct seasons of the year
c.
Low costs for heat and air conditioning
d.
Minimum weather-related absences from work or school
____ 5. Which statement describes a way that the barrier islands protect the mainland?
a.
They channel ocean saltwater away from inland rivers, creeks, and streams.
b.
They block storms, such as hurricanes and nor’easters, from reaching the mainland.
c.
They block much of the wind, sands, and water that could cause erosion on the mainland.
d.
They lower tides so that Georgia does not experience damage from high tides.
____ 6. Which climate characteristic would not attract new businesses or industries to the state?
a.
Georgia’s mild climate makes fuel costs economical for businesses or industries.
b.
Georgia’s mild climate makes weather-related absences from work a rare occurrence.
c.
Georgia’s moderate climate allows transportation routes to be open almost all of the time.
d.
Georgia’s moderate climate provides many different seasonal employment opportunities.
____ 7. The largest geographical region is the
a.
Ridge and Valley region.
b.
Coastal Plain region.
c.
Appalachian Plateau region.
d.
Piedmont Plateau region.
____ 8. Which statement best describes the geographical regions of Georgia?
a.
Three of the regions have a combined land area smaller than that of the Piedmont Plateau.
b.
The geographical regions of Georgia contain good farmland.
c.
The Coastal Plain region is more than twice the size of the other four regions combined.
d.
The smallest region in land area is the Blue Ridge region.
____ 9. Those rivers that form part of Georgia’s borders with neighboring states are the
a.
Chattahoochee, Flint, and Altamaha rivers.
b.
Flint, Savannah, and Ogeechee rivers.
c.
Savannah, Chattahoochee, and St. Marys rivers.
d.
Oconee, St. Marys, and Flint rivers.
____ 10. Which is not a benefit of Georgia’s manmade lakes?
a.
They provide natural groundwater storage.
b.
They provide hydroelectric power.
c.
They provide excellent recreation facilities.
d.
They supply cities with water.
____ 11. Based on what you learned about the different regions, why would the Coastal Plain use more water for irrigation than the Ridge and Valley region?
a.
The Coastal Plain is a larger region than the Ridge and Valley region.
b.
The Coastal Plain is the state’s major agricultural region and grows more farm products.
c.
The Coastal Plain is nearer the ocean and loses more water to ocean run-off.
d.
The Ridge and Valley region does not lose much irrigation water to steep run-offs.
____ 12. Which river forms part of Georgia’s eastern border?
a.
The Coosa River
b.
The Savannah River
c.
The Altamaha River
d.
The Etowah River
____ 13. Which river forms a border between Georgia and Florida?
a.
The Coosa River
b.
The Altamaha River
c.
The Savannah River
d.
The St. Marys River
____ 14. Which was not a part of the prehistoric Indian culture in Georgia?
a.
Mississippian
b.
Woodland
c.
Paleo
d.
Creek
____ 15. Which factor resulted in prehistoric Indians settling in groups in a permanent area?
a.
Large game was abundant.
b.
The Indians began to cultivate plants as foods.
c.
Prehistoric Indians followed herds of large animals.
d.
Prehistoric Indians wanted to band together for protection.
____ 16. Which statement explains why archaeologists consider prehistoric Indians to have believed in some form of life after death?
a.
The legends of an afterlife were passed down from generation to generation until today.
b.
Burial mounds for the dead contained items such as tools, tobacco pipes, and weapons.
c.
Their pictographs and cave drawings depicted a spiritual world after the living world.
d.
Their tribal centers had churches for worship.
____ 17. Which statement best explains the information on the map?
a.
The east coast of the United States has not changed in 20,000 years.
b.
There is less land in the world today than 20,000 years ago.
c.
Florida was a peninsula 20,000 years ago.
d.
The British Isles were islands 20,000 years ago.
____ 18. According to the map, which section of Georgia has no mounds?
a.
Northwest
b.
Southwest
c.
Northeast
d.
Southeast
____ 19. What does the information on the map tell you about the moundbuilders?
a.
The moundbuilders lived throughout Georgia.
b.
The moundbuilders mostly settled along the coast.
c.
The moundbuilders built cone-shaped mounds.
d.
The moundbuilders believed in an afterlife.
____ 20. Which country was not a major colonizer of the New World?
a.
France
b.
Spain
c.
England
d.
Italy
____ 21. Which group of people could become colonists in Georgia according to its charter?
a.
Liquor dealers
b.
Methodists
c.
Blacks
d.
Lawyers
____ 22. Which was not a likely cause of disease and fatalities in Georgia’s initial year?
a.
Lack of fresh vegetables
b.
Indian epidemics
c.
Changes in climate
d.
Hard physical labor
____ 23. Which was not a major source of discontent with Georgia’s early colonists?
a.
A ban on slavery
b.
A ban on Catholicism
c.
Restrictions on rum and alcohol
d.
Restrictions on land inheritances
____ 24. Which was not a primary motive for European explorations in the New World?
a.
Discovery of new trade routes, gold, and riches
b.
Learning new agricultural methods and techniques
c.
Gaining world power and position as a nation
d.
Bringing Christianity to the New World natives and escaping religious persecution
____ 25. Which definition best explains the British policy known as “mercantilism?”
a.
A trade policy whereby a nation imports less than it exports
b.
A military policy for defending colonial outposts
c.
A trade policy that calls for opening trade routes to the Far East
d.
A military policy that calls for establishing buffer colonies to protect established British settlements
____ 26. Which definition best describes a royal colony during the colonial period?
a.
A colony that was governed by a set of trustees
b.
A colony that was governed by charter owners
c.
A colony that was governed by the king of England
d.
A colony that was governed by its citizens
____ 27. Which statement best describes Georgia’s first government as a royal colony?
a.
The government consisted of a unicameral legislature representing Georgia’s eight counties.
b.
The government had a bicameral legislature representing Georgia’s eight parishes.
c.
The government included a House of Commons and a House of Assembly, patterned after the government of Great Britain, representing all of the state.
d.
The government was made up of an Advisory Council appointed by the king of England.
____ 28. Which statement best describes how the French and Indian War led to America’s Revolutionary War?
a.
England gained control of Canada and tried to use Canada’s tax structure on the thirteen colonies.
b.
France lost the Louisiana Territory and the Southern Colonies argued with Great Britain over claims to the newly acquired land.
c.
France, which was bitter over losing the war to Great Britain, incited rebellion in the colonies and enticed Spain to move into the territories of the British colonists.
d.
Great Britain was heavily in debt after the war and tried to recover monies by taxing colonies based on the idea that the war had been necessary to protect the colonies from the French.
____ 29. Which statement best describes the effect of the French and Indian War on Georgia’s growth and development?
a.
Georgia gained new lands, new water access for shipping, ample farmland, and rich forests for timber and naval stores.
b.
Georgia gained many new settlers who were living in the lands that were added to Georgia’s colonial boundaries.
c.
Georgia took possession of several key French forts, which added to the defenses of Georgia against the Spanish.
d.
Once the French and the Indian tribes were defeated and no longer a threat to Georgia, the colony prospered in a stable and peaceful environment.
____ 30. Which statement best explains why anti-British sentiment was less in Georgia than in the other colonies during the Revolutionary period?
a.
Georgia had more British settlers than the other colonies who were more loyal to Great Britain.
b.
Georgia was far younger as a colony than the other colonies, and it still needed much support from Great Britain.
c.
Georgia was not as successful as the other colonies, and it could not afford to raise funds to fight the British.
d.
Georgia had a much smaller population than the other colonies, and it did not have enough men for an army to fight the British.
____ 31. Which statement best describes a weakness of Georgia’s first state constitution?
a.
Georgia’s first constitution outlined a government based on the separation of powers among different branches.
b.
Georgia’s first constitution established a unicameral legislature with strong powers, including the power to appoint the governor and control his actions.
c.
Georgia’s first constitution did away with the existing parishes and established eight counties.
d.
Georgia’s first constitution established a one-year term of office for the governor.
____ 32. What was a major weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
a.
The federal government represented all thirteen states.
b.
The Articles of Confederation could be revised.
c.
The Articles of Confederation was not ratified by all the states.
d.
The federal government had little power.
____ 33. Which statement best describes a “land grant university,” like the University of Georgia?
a.
The land for the college was donated by the federal government.
b.
The college was established as an agricultural college to improving farming.
c.
The college was a public university.
d.
The land could never be used for any purpose other than a college.
____ 34. In 1830 what requirement did the Georgia legislature set on whites who lived on Cherokee lands?
a.
They could not keep the gold that was found on those lands.
b.
They had to take an oath of allegiance to the governor of the state.
c.
They could not file legal claims to land ownership.
d.
They had to give up state and federal citizenship.
____ 35. According to the map, which city benefitted the most from the early railroads in Georgia?
a.
Savannah
b.
Macon
c.
Augusta
d.
Atlanta
____ 36. From information on the map, why was Atlanta at one time called Terminus?
a.
Because all the railroads ended there
b.
Because a majority of the railroads went through the city
c.
Because no major railroad went through the city
d.
Because it was the end of the longest railroad line
____ 37. Which definition best explains the “Missouri Compromise”?
a.
It allowed slavery in Maine but did not allow slavery in Missouri.
b.
It required that slaves captured in free states be returned to slave states.
c.
It maintained a balance of power between slave and free states.
d.
It said that Missouri could have slavery.
____ 38. Which statement does not explain how the Dred Scott decision pushed the nation closer to war?
a.
The Supreme Court ruled against abolitionists saying slaves were not citizens.
b.
The Supreme Court ruled that the federal government could not stop slavery in territories.
c.
The Supreme Court upheld the legal rights of the southern states and their institution of slavery.
d.
The Supreme Court ruled that slave owners had to be reimbursed for slaves who escaped on the underground railroad.
____ 39. Which was an organized escape plan for southern slaves fleeing their owners?
a.
The slave revolt
b.
The slave code
c.
The underground railroad
d.
The Fugitive Slave Law
____ 40. Which result of the Compromise of 1850 did not benefit the North?
a.
California joined the Union as a free state.
b.
Slave trading was ended in the District of Columbia.
c.
Texas did not annex New Mexico as a slave territory.
d.
Congress passed a law allowing fugitive slaves to be returned to their owners.
____ 41. Which statement does not describe a major difference between the North and South during the antebellum period?
a.
The South was agricultural while the North was industrial.
b.
The South allowed slavery while the North did not.
c.
The North favored high tariffs on imported goods while the South did not.
d.
Both the North and the South believed their interests were best for whole nation.
____ 42. Which statement does not describe an advantage of the Union forces during the Civil War?
a.
The North had a “standing,” or established, army and navy.
b.
The North had heavy railroad tracks and more miles of track.
c.
The North had many more factories that could produce war materials.
d.
The North had home-field advantage because most battles were fought in their states.
____ 43. Which Union tactic caused the most damage to the South’s economy during the Civil War?
a.
Gaining control of the ports on the Mississippi River
b.
Dividing southern forces in half and isolating the Deep South
c.
Establishing blockades of southern seaports
d.
Destroying Atlanta and much of Georgia on Sherman’s “March to the Sea”
____ 44. What was the purpose of the blockade shown in the map?
a.
To cut off southern trade
b.
To keep the Confederate navy in port
c.
To frighten the Confederate civilians
d.
To keep slaves from escaping
____ 45. Which statement best describes the purpose of the Freedmen’s Bureau during Reconstruction?
a.
To help the newly freed slaves adjust to their freedom
b.
To register newly freed slaves to vote
c.
To manage the distribution of farm land and animals to newly freed slaves
d.
To provide education, training, and social services for newly freed slaves
____ 46. Which statement best describes the difference between sharecropping and tenant farming?
a.
Sharecroppers owned nothing but their labor, while tenant farmers owned farm animals and equipment to use in working other people’s lands.
b.
Sharecroppers received a percentage of the crops produced and could set aside cash money to purchase their own land, while tenant farmers had difficulty saving cash.
c.
Tenant farmers received a cash salary or wage for their farm work, while sharecroppers received only a portion of the crops they raised.
d.
Tenant farmers earned equity or an interest in the land they worked from year to year so that eventually they would own their own property.
____ 47. Which statement best describes the reason behind the move of Georgia’s capital to Atlanta from Milledgeville?
a.
Most of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention of 1867 were carpetbaggers and scalawags.
b.
The state was under a military governorship in 1867, and the military headquarters was in Atlanta.
c.
Many of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention of 1867 were blacks who were denied lodging in Milledgeville hotels.
d.
The Republicans were in power in the city of Atlanta, and the Democrats were in power in Milledgeville.
____ 48. Which statement best explains why northern businessmen invested money to build Georgia’s textile industry after the Civil War?
a.
Georgia had plenty of cotton, abundant land and water, and inexpensive labor to supply and operate textile mills.
b.
Georgia had plenty of railroads and major seaports for transporting cotton and textile products when the Civil War ended.
c.
Georgia was one of the few southern states to retain capital (cash money and investments) after the Civil War.
d.
Georgia was one of the few southern states to avoid violence and terrorism after the war ended.
____ 49. Which statement best explains why the term “Bourbon Triumvirate” was most appropriate for Joseph Brown, Alfred Colquitt, and John Gordon?
a.
All three Georgia leaders shared a strong belief in white supremacy or white superiority.
b.
The three men were political rulers drawn together in a close relationship by power and political goals.
c.
The three men were known for excessive business practices and high personal profit motives.
d.
The three Georgia leaders ruled the state consecutively for a period of over thirty years.
____ 50. Because of her reform activities, which group would not have supported Rebecca Latimer Felton?
a.
Supporters of the temperance movement to forbid the manufacture, sale, and use of alcohol
b.
Supporters of educational opportunities for all citizens of the state
c.
Supporters of the suffrage movement to gain voting rights for women
d.
Supporters of the convict lease system to use leased labor for public works projects
____ 51. Which description most clearly reflects the meaning of the phrase New South?
a.
The South showed a new economic growth and prosperity after the Reconstruction and Redemption periods.
b.
The South began to change in the areas of business, industrialization, agriculture, race relations, and social change.
c.
The South reflected new ways of thinking and made huge strides in social, cultural, economic, and political areas.
d.
The agricultural South was gone, and the state needed to develop new industries to compete with the North.
____ 52. Which statement best explains the growth of Georgia’s textile industry during the late 1800s?
a.
Georgia had abundant supplies of the two essential raw materials for textiles -- cotton and wool.
b.
Georgia had abundant water resources to provide power for textile mills.
c.
Georgia had a strong educational system, which trained workers with special skills and expertise in textiles.
d.
Georgia’s water resources, network of railroad lines, supply of cotton, and coastal seaports made textiles profitable.
____ 53. In 1915, Georgia’s juvenile court system
a.
defined juveniles as youths under the age of 18.
b.
tried and punished juveniles in a manner different from that used for adults.
c.
imprisoned juveniles with other youths or with old or sick inmates.
d.
gave juveniles who were convicted of a crime the same rights as adult criminals.
____ 54. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution gave women the right to vote?
a.
Fifteenth Amendment
b.
Twentieth Amendment
c.
Eighteenth Amendment
d.
Nineteenth Amendment
____ 55. Which statement was not true of Georgia’s county unit system?
a.
By uniting, the state’s smaller counties could decide state elections.
b.
By uniting, the state’s 8 largest counties could decide state elections.
c.
The 121 smallest counties had two unit votes each.
d.
The 8 largest counties had 6 unit votes each.
____ 56. Booker T. Washington did not believe that
a.
vocational education was essential for African Americans who sought equality.
b.
economic equality was much more important than social equality for African Americans.
c.
political and social equality for African Americans would come from economic independence.
d.
truth and knowledge would cause different races to understand and accept each other.
____ 57. Which organization was not established to bring about racial equality in the United States?
a.
National Urban League
b.
Ku Klux Klan
c.
NAACP
d.
Niagara Movement
____ 58. What countries were allies (on the same side) in World War I?
a.
Great Britain, France, United States, Russia
b.
Germany, Russia, Austria-Hungary
c.
United States, France, Austria-Hungary, Great Britain
d.
Germany, Japan, Russia
____ 59. The “final blow” that led President Woodrow Wilson to ask Congress to declare war against the Central Powers led by Germany in World War I was
a.
the sinking of Lusitania.
b.
the Zimmermann telegram.
c.
anti-German propaganda in the U.S.
d.
attacks on American merchant ships.
____ 60. At which Georgia military installation was infantry trained in World War I?
a.
Camp Gordon
b.
Fort McPherson
c.
Camp Benning
d.
Camp Augusta
____ 61. Which is not associated with World War I?
a.
General John Pershing
b.
Victory gardens
c.
The American Red Cross
d.
The sinking of the Titanic
____ 62. In the 1920s, Georgia was not affected by
a.
a prolonged drought.
b.
boll weevils.
c.
the loss of thousands of working farms.
d.
a jump in cotton production and prices.
____ 63. Which statement does not describe a reason for the movement of black farmers to the North during the Great Migration?
a.
Health care for African Americans was better in the North than in the South.
b.
Southern public schools for African Americans were poor.
c.
The South restricted the voting rights of African Americans.
d.
Southern agricultural practices were better than northern agricultural methods.
____ 64. During the Roaring Twenties, females did not
a.
use lipstick and rouge.
b.
wear tight skirts and long petticoats.
c.
wear short, bobbed hair styles.
d.
party without a chaperone.
____ 65. Which was not common during the Great Depression?
a.
Public assistance housing
b.
Soup kitchens
c.
Bartering practices
d.
Migrations in search of work
____ 66. The New Deal programs were intended to
a.
improve national trade policies and taxes.
b.
reduce segregation.
c.
reform the government.
d.
relieve the suffering of the unemployed.
____ 67. What woman was a member of Roosevelt’s “Black Cabinet?”
a.
Rebecca Latimer Felton
b.
Margaret Mitchell
c.
Mary McLeod Bethune
d.
Eleanor Roosevelt
____ 68. Which improvement in farming in Georgia is not due to the Rural Electrification Authority?
a.
Electric water pumps
b.
Electric milking machines
c.
Frozen food processing
d.
Electric lights
____ 69. Which dictator was the leader of Germany during World War II?
a.
Joseph Stalin
b.
Benito Mussolini
c.
Adolph Hitler
d.
Emperor Hirohito
____ 70. Before it officially entered World War II, the United States helped Great Britain by
a.
selling and leasing ships, arms, and supplies.
b.
sinking German submarines that attacked British ships.
c.
escorting British merchant ships in the Pacific.
d.
escorting British warships in Atlantic waters.
____ 71. During World War II, young people in Georgia support the armed forces by
a.
purchasing defense stamps and war bonds.
b.
making candles to send to England
c.
picking up newspapers.
d.
picking milkweed floss for use in making parachutes.
